Mr. Mahadevan commented that the latest discovery was very strong evidence that the Neolithic people of Tamil Nadu and the Indus Valley people "shared the same language, which can only be Dravidian and not Indo-Aryan." He added that before this discovery, the southernmost occurrence of the Indus script was at Daimabad, Maharashtra on the Pravara River in the Godavari Valley.
Why is it that it has to be only Dravidian??? Why can't Tamil Nadu guys too be speaking the languages of Indus Valley and then developed their derivative Dravidian????
Please suggest me the logic behind your assertion or comment. (No propoganda statements please)
Isn't Dravidianism another side of the myth called "Aryan Invasion Theory"? If not, please explain.
Thanks and Regards,
PS: Reason for mass circulation is because I dont have his mail id. Kindly forward the same to him.